53 responses to “Interpretation of Syphilis Serology”

  1. Good morning, Dr. Naiditch – yes, I have read the same about approximately 30% of primary syphilis cases being bacteremic, especially when the lesion has been present for an extended period, or in the cases of recurrent primary syphilis. Unless I’ve missed something in the literature of the past few decades, conducting an LP to facilitate CSF studies in neurologically asymptomatic cases is no longer the standard of care, and speaking anecdotally, I do not recall a single incidence of a primary care or other provider doing the same. You’re probably aware, but roughly only a third of untreated patients with syphilis will go on to develop neurological or late syphilis complications. Our local HIV specialty providers often over-prescribe (?) out of an abundance of caution and treat their early (and late) syphilis patients with BIC 2.4mu x three weeks, just to make sure, even our pediatric HIV specialists. I, too, have observed an increased likelihood in HIV patients of developing neurological complications years after their primary or secondary infections, most especially when they have been treated for syphilis multiple times. Why is that? I don’t have the resources to explain it, either. Regarding using doxycycline to treat syphilis in the hopes that it will penetrate the BBB more effectively than the BPCNG, I offer that CDC’s STD Treatment Guidelines no longer even lists doxycycline as an “alternative” treatment for any stage of syphilis, excepting for a patient who is truly allergic to PCN, or in times of PCN shortage. During the recent global/national shortage of BPCNG, our health department, correctional facilities, and some other providers (not to mention other practitioners across our country) used a single dose of LA Bicillin 2.4mu and doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 28 days to treat apparent late latent syphilis cases where the RPR was 1:32 or higher. That way, the single dose of PCNG would actually treat/cure the infection if it was really a case of early syphilis, but the doxy x 28 days would take care of it if it was actually a late latent case. I hope all of that helps.

  2. Thank you for the article and comment section – Extremely helpful. I have some interesting serologies; case presents to neurology w/ altered mental status. They test only RPR titer, which is 1:16. I request TPPA and repeat RPR 2 weeks later when I become involved. TPPA is N/R and RPR has now raised to 1:32. I asked case to be referred to ID for further eval, but I am curious if you think this could be syphilis (and concerns for neuro as well)? Or possibly something else triggering the titer?

  3. The TPPA reacts specifically to the syphilis bacteria, so if it’s repeatedly nonreactive, that generally means that syphilis is not involved…as it’s simply not there. The RPR can react to some of the surface elements of the syphilis bacteria, but in large part, it reacts to the inflammatory response of whatever is going on. Further, the TPPA is highly specific and also unlikely to react when it shouldn’t. Something is clearly going on with your patient, but it’s not likely to be related to syphilis.

Leave a Reply